http://www.foxnews.com/story/0,2933,327908,00.html
For those who don't know, it is illegal to possess firearms in Chicago and its surrounding suburbs. So how could the criminal who perpetrated this violent act possibly have used a GUN to shoot five innocent women? You mean to tell me that he didn't obey the law? Is it possible these women may have had a fighting chance if their right to self-protection (right to keep and bear arms) was not infringed by the fascist Illinois government? Hmmm.
-- Skyboss
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